I get that you're trying to be cheeky, but what I'm saying is grounded in truth.
And yes, if both parties are comparably intoxicated and both parties are ostensibly consenting, but both parties are statutorily unable to consent, and we declare that the man alone is a rapist because only men need to secure consent from women and not the other way around, then yes, that man is a significant victim of sexist double standards.
And yes, this double standard is a popular one to this present day, even if criminal laws explicitly encoding them have AFAIK all been removed.