theVladiator
Registered User
- May 26, 2018
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In order for the Crown to prove manslaughter, the Crown has to prove that the Accused person intended to commit the act - that is the Accused intended to kick or strike Johnson with his skate.
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But that's going to be the question - did the Accused intend to kick Johnson with his skate? And in particular - can it be proven beyond a reasonable doubt that he intended to kick Johnson with his skate?
Perhaps I am nitpicking, but this portion isn't quite the way I understand it, so I wanted to see if this is exactly how you meant to communicate portions quoted above.
From my point of view (and I am not a lawyer) intent to specifically kick Johnson would not be necessary for it to be manslaughter. For example, if he was trying to kick another player. Or if he was trying to demonstrate a ballet move. Or trying to swat a fly on Johnson's shoulder. Basically it's enough that the move itself was purposeful and intentional, regardless of what the intention and the purpose was, as it would have been reckless to try either of those things with a blade attached to your foot and others nearby. Am I not understanding the manslaughter correctly here?