daver
Registered User
Yes, I would agree that the period roughly after 1950 is post-War time...I wish there was a little more footage of the 40's available to be even more sure, but from what I have seen, the league is still messy and unkempt throughout most of the 40's...
So by default Richard's goalscoring dominance in the 40s should be viewed as "messy and unkempt"?
Richard's 2nd most dominant goalscoring year is arguably 50/51 and his 4th best is 49/50.
How can you make any statistical argument that his goalscoring numbers were inflated in the '40s when he was, in theory, in his prime and should be putting up peak seasons, when he followed that up with similar dominance into the early 50s and an expected presence among the league's best goalscorers into the mid and late 50s.
Where is the statistical anomaly or outlier that backs up this claim of "messy and unkempt"?