I don't think I can get on board with this explanation.Legal play, IMO.
Puck is allowed to be batted by a player with their open hand as long as a teammate doesn't gain possession of the puck either from the puck being batted directly to them, or indirectly off a player/official. Meier bats it, it hits open ice in the middle of a bunch of players, it bounces a few times, then Nyqvist, who was not close to where the puck is batted to, swoops in and picks it up.
In fact, the only Sharks player that was close to where the puck was batted to was Karlsson, and he didn't even make a move to get the puck.
Did the Sharks gain advantage? Yes. Did they gain advantage legally? Yes, IMO.
HOWEVER, that **** should be reviewable. It's OT in the playoffs. You can review for a skate being a millimeter offside, but not something as controversial as this? Bull.
That explanation is in the rulebook.I don't think I can get on board with this explanation.
DISAGREE!!!
Yeah going by the exact language, it seems like even more of a hand pass.That explanation is in the rulebook.
Nope. Sharks did indeed get possession and advantage. I don't think it's possible to argue that.Yeah going by the exact language, it seems like even more of a hand pass.
The ONLY malleable language in that rule is the "in the opinion of the on-ice officials"
was the puck directed by hand? check
did the offending team gain advantage by gaining possession? check
So no I cannot agree with your assessment.
We see hand-passes that are called all the time where a guy is just waiting to touch the puck because he knows a teammate happened to touch it with his hand. Those plays are much less "direct" than this one, yet are still called hand-passes.
It seems our disagreement is with our personal definition of what constitutes "possession" and "advantage" I believe the criteria for both were met. You don't
I think by him "batting" the puck, the puck moved from an area where there were at least two Blues defenders, to an area where there were Shark players. This, in my opinion, created an advantage for the Sharks and the play should have been blown dead.Legal play, IMO.
Puck is allowed to be batted by a player with their open hand as long as a teammate doesn't gain possession of the puck either from the puck being batted directly to them, or indirectly off a player/official. Meier bats it, it hits open ice in the middle of a bunch of players, it bounces a few times, then Nyqvist, who was not close to where the puck is batted to, swoops in and picks it up.
In fact, the only Sharks player that was close to where the puck was batted to was Karlsson, and he didn't even make a move to get the puck.
Did the Sharks gain advantage? Yes. Did they gain advantage legally? Yes, IMO.
HOWEVER, that **** should be reviewable. It's OT in the playoffs. You can review for a skate being a millimeter offside, but not something as controversial as this? Bull.
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Nope. Sharks did indeed get possession and advantage. I don't think it's possible to argue that.
However, Meier batted the puck basically to open ice and not to any player on the Sharks either directly or deflected off a body. That's a legal play, by the rules. Sharks didn't get possession/advantage because of the play. They got it after the play. The Blues had an equal opportunity to get possession as the Sharks did.
Being mad at ref inconsistency is something different.
The league missed Meirer batting the puck but at least he got credit for the assist. Good to know video review and 4 referees were successfully used for something.
Nope. Sharks did indeed get possession and advantage. I don't think it's possible to argue that.
However, Meier batted the puck basically to open ice and not to any player on the Sharks either directly or deflected off a body. That's a legal play, by the rules. Sharks didn't get possession/advantage because of the play. They got it after the play. The Blues had an equal opportunity to get possession as the Sharks did.
Being mad at ref inconsistency is something different.