daver
Registered User
In terms of domination vs. his peers, it is one of the most dominating goalscoring seasons statistically in NHL history.
Some believe that his goal total (50), the gap between him and 2nd place (18 goals ahead of Cain), and the gap between him and the other top goalscorers is significantly inflated given the number of players that were missing from the NHL in 1944/45 due to the war. This brings into question how to value this season vs. other GOAT goalscoring seasons: Does he even get close to the same level of domination if no players left for the war, or does he even win the goalscoring title?
The counter argument to this is that perhaps his goal total was inflated but so were other goal totals so his domination over the other top goal scorers was legitimate backed up by the fact that he had a slightly less dominant season in 46/47 after the war had ended and players had returned and, even more significantly, in 50/51 when any remnants of the war affect were apparently gone and he just so happened to go toe to toe with Howe in his peak on the goalscoring front.
The other counter argument is that no other elite goalscorer who stayed in the league into 44/45 could muster anything close to the domination that Richard casting clear doubts that an elite goalscorer who left the league could have done any better than compete for 2nd place in 44/45 with Cain.
IMO, you could perhaps add an asterix (i.e. marginal context) to his level of domination that season but only to a degree that you may place it behind other GOAT goalscoring seasons that are on the same statistical level.
What do you think?
Some believe that his goal total (50), the gap between him and 2nd place (18 goals ahead of Cain), and the gap between him and the other top goalscorers is significantly inflated given the number of players that were missing from the NHL in 1944/45 due to the war. This brings into question how to value this season vs. other GOAT goalscoring seasons: Does he even get close to the same level of domination if no players left for the war, or does he even win the goalscoring title?
The counter argument to this is that perhaps his goal total was inflated but so were other goal totals so his domination over the other top goal scorers was legitimate backed up by the fact that he had a slightly less dominant season in 46/47 after the war had ended and players had returned and, even more significantly, in 50/51 when any remnants of the war affect were apparently gone and he just so happened to go toe to toe with Howe in his peak on the goalscoring front.
The other counter argument is that no other elite goalscorer who stayed in the league into 44/45 could muster anything close to the domination that Richard casting clear doubts that an elite goalscorer who left the league could have done any better than compete for 2nd place in 44/45 with Cain.
IMO, you could perhaps add an asterix (i.e. marginal context) to his level of domination that season but only to a degree that you may place it behind other GOAT goalscoring seasons that are on the same statistical level.
What do you think?
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