northernKing
Registered User
- Jul 15, 2004
- 1,889
- 0
Does anyone familiar with the new CBA know if the following scenario is possible.
If a team has a player signed to a high cap hit but low salary like Briere ($6.5M cap hit but only paid a combined $5M the next two seasons) could they trade the player to another team and sign him after he is bought out? In this example could Philly trade Briere and a 1st rd pick to Toronto for Komasirek (1yr $4.5M) and have Toronto buy him out and sign him as an UFA? Philly would in turn buyout komaserik making him an ufa. So Philly spends the same on buyout but adds Briere back to roster for cheap and TO gets a 1st for similar amount if cash it would have spent on komaserik buyout
The likely hood is low in this happening as it basically amounts to Toronto buying a first rd pick but just wanted to know if its in fact legal? Thanks in advance for any input
If a team has a player signed to a high cap hit but low salary like Briere ($6.5M cap hit but only paid a combined $5M the next two seasons) could they trade the player to another team and sign him after he is bought out? In this example could Philly trade Briere and a 1st rd pick to Toronto for Komasirek (1yr $4.5M) and have Toronto buy him out and sign him as an UFA? Philly would in turn buyout komaserik making him an ufa. So Philly spends the same on buyout but adds Briere back to roster for cheap and TO gets a 1st for similar amount if cash it would have spent on komaserik buyout
The likely hood is low in this happening as it basically amounts to Toronto buying a first rd pick but just wanted to know if its in fact legal? Thanks in advance for any input
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